Why did Jesus call himself “Son of Man” and at other times “Son of God”?

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Q: Why did Jesus call himself “Son of Man” and at other times “Son of God”?

A: The name “Adam” means “The Man”.

In Genesis 3:15 God promises to eventually send a redeemer who will be the male offspring (son) of Adam … “Son of (the) Man“.

The Hebrews would have no doubt that Jesus, applying this term to himself, was most certainly declaring himself to be none other than the promised Messiah.

But the Jews (or the gentiles, for that matter) would probably not have expected the Messiah to also be the Son of God, since that detail wasn’t clearly defined, according to their limited understanding of the OT scriptures, which described God as “one”.

Jesus personally set that matter straight when he described himself as the Son of God … and that was enough to get him crucified … perfectly fulfilling God’s salvific plan.

How did Satan go from being the adversary-fulfilling a vital function, to being the big Bad?

Q: How did Satan go from being the adversary – fulfilling a vital function, to being the big Bad?

A: Perhaps you failed to notice …

About 2000 years ago … Satan … the prince of this world, at the time … used his willing minions … the Jews and the Romans … to take the life of the innocent and sinless Jesus, who is the only begotten Son of God.

Nobody … not even the devil … has the right to take the life of a sinless man … let alone the only Son of God.

That ought to do it … by ANY standard!